Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 03:49
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Why can’t my wife just accept the fact that I’m going to cheat?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's the difference between “ce”, “ça”, and “cela”, and when do I use each (French)?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Is the Democrat party connected with organized crime in America?
You'll usually find your answer there.